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1.1 Blood Composition — Test 1
Q1. Maturing erythrocytes lose their nuclei in:✓ Mammals
Q2. Which ligand is involved in platelet adhesion and aggregation?✓ Fibronectin
Q3. Which one of the following is NOT directly triggered by exposed collagen in an injured vessel?✓ Activation of plasminogen
Q4. Which is the correct sequence of WBC types in decreasing order per mm³ of healthy human blood?✓ Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
Q5. Heparin present in normal circulating mammalian blood is formed by:✓ Mast cells
Q6. Embolus is:✓ A moving blood clot
Q7. Which substance dissolves blood clots?✓ Streptokinase
Q8. The prime cause of Erythroblastosis foetalis in the foetus is:✓ Agglutination (Rh-incompatibility haemolysis)
Q9. Rh factor is related with:✓ RBC
Q10. The aged erythrocytes are destroyed mainly by:✓ Spleen and liver
Q11. Haematocrit is the percentage of:✓ RBCs in blood
Q12. A nucleated RBC present in red bone marrow and sometimes in blood is called a:✓ Normoblast
Q13. Which of these organs removes old or damaged blood cells from the circulation?✓ Spleen
Q14. Normal mammalian RBCs are typically:✓ Biconcave and enucleated in humans
Q15. Haematopoiesis (formation of blood cells) primarily occurs in the:✓ Bone marrow
1.1 Blood Composition — Test 2
Q16. Diapedesis is:✓ Movement of WBCs out of vessels to the injury site
Q17. Kupffer's cells are:✓ Fixed macrophages (from monocytes)
Q18. In mammals, Kupffer cells are present in the:✓ Liver
Q19. What percentage of the WBCs of a normal adult human are lymphocytes?✓ 20–40%
Q20. Which blood cell type does NOT belong in the same group as the others?✓ Lymphocyte
Q21. Which is the correct sequence of WBC types in decreasing number per mm³ of healthy human blood?✓ Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
Q22. Angiogenesis refers to the generation of new:✓ Blood vessels
Q23. Effect of a hypotonic solution on a plant cell and a red blood cell respectively:✓ Turgid (plant) and burst (RBC)
Q24. What happens when red blood cells are kept in a hypotonic solution?✓ Cells swell and eventually burst
Q25. In response to an increase in the osmolality of blood:✓ ADH secretion increases to conserve water
Q26. Besides its anti-oxidant activity, vitamin E is associated with:✓ Increased release of prostacyclin
Q27. When a mammal is bled rapidly and blood volume falls, cardiovascular changes are minimised mainly by:✓ Reabsorption of tissue fluid into blood and baroreceptor-driven compensation
Q28. Serum has essentially the same composition as plasma EXCEPT that it lacks:✓ Clotting factors (e.g. fibrinogen)
Q29. The maturation of red blood cells does NOT depend on:✓ Tocopherol (vitamin E)
Q30. Regarding thrombin's roles in haemostasis, thrombin promotes:✓ Fibrinogen→fibrin conversion, factor XIII activation and platelet aggregation
1.1 Blood Composition — Test 3
Q31. If type A donor blood is given to a type B recipient, the donor RBCs agglutinate because:✓ Anti-A agglutinins in the recipient's plasma bind donor A antigens
Q32. The only bone-marrow cell that normally never appears in peripheral blood is the:✓ Megaloblast
Q33. Which one is NOT a characteristic feature of human platelets?✓ Half-life of 20–24 days
Q34. Which one is NOT a function of the liver?✓ Producing antibodies against pathogens
Q35. During haemoglobin degradation in macrophages, haem is first converted to:✓ Biliverdin (with release of carbon monoxide)
Q36. Some metabolic features of the RBC include all EXCEPT:✓ Operating the citric acid cycle for ATP
Q37. Polycythaemia is an abnormal increase in:✓ Erythrocytes (RBCs)
Q38. A clinical condition in which WBC production is stopped in the bone marrow is called:✓ Leucopenia
Q39. Match of ABO blood groups with their terminal carbohydrate: which set is correct?✓ O – fucose & galactose (H); A – N-acetylgalactosamine; B – galactose
Q40. Which organ removes worn-out RBCs from circulation?✓ Spleen
Q41. Plasma proteins (albumin, globulins, fibrinogen) perform all the following roles EXCEPT:✓ Acting as the main oxygen transporter
Q42. In which body fluid is the K⁺ concentration higher than that of Na⁺?✓ Endolymph (of the inner ear)
Q43. Most CO₂ in the blood is carried:✓ As bicarbonate ions in plasma
Q44. The size of red blood cells in venous blood is slightly greater than in arterial blood mainly because:✓ CO₂ entry and the chloride shift draw water into venous RBCs
Q45. Which one is NOT a normal constituent of blood plasma's protein buffer description? (choose the false statement)✓ Protein buffers are the primary buffers of acid in urine
1.1 Blood Composition — Test 4
Q46. Polycythaemia developing in a person who moves to a high-altitude region is best explained by:✓ Increased erythropoietin in response to hypoxia
Q47. The buffy coat seen after centrifuging blood consists mainly of:✓ White blood cells and platelets
Q48. The plasma protein chiefly responsible for colloid (oncotic) osmotic pressure is:✓ Albumin
Q49. The life span of a normal human red blood cell is about:✓ 120 days
Q50. The iron released from the breakdown of haemoglobin is mainly:✓ Recycled and reused for new haemoglobin
Q51. The percentage of blood volume made up of plasma in a normal adult is about:✓ 55%
Q52. The chief site of erythropoiesis in the human foetus during mid-pregnancy is the:✓ Liver (and spleen)
Q53. The shape and flexibility of the biconcave RBC depend on a membrane cytoskeleton built mainly from:✓ Spectrin
Q54. Carbonic anhydrase, important for CO₂ transport, is located mainly in the:✓ Red blood cells
Q55. A normal differential count would show the most numerous leukocyte to be the:✓ Neutrophil
Q56. The clumping together of red cells when incompatible blood is mixed is called:✓ Agglutination
Q57. A universal red-cell donor (for the ABO system) has blood group:✓ O
Q58. A universal recipient (for the ABO system) has blood group:✓ AB
Q59. Thrombocytes (platelets) are formed in the bone marrow from:✓ Megakaryocytes
Q60. An abnormally low haemoglobin level or red-cell count is termed:✓ Anaemia